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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 07:39

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How many of you have had your parental rights taken away because of lies and no truth whatsoever, and did you prove the lies that were told about you to be false either through drug testing or another way, but still had your rights taken?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Is it legal to record a conversation with a therapist without their consent or the consent of the other person involved?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.